(1) => (2): Assume that f is continuous on an open set
D. Let U be an open set in the range of f. We need
to show that
(U)
D is
again open. Take any
![]()
(U).
That is equivalent to saying that f(
)
U.
Since U is open, we can find an
>
0 such that the
-
neighborhood of f(
)
is contained in U. For this fixed
we
can use the continuity of f to pick a
>
0 such that
This implies that the
-
neighborhood of
is
contained in
(U).
Hence, the inverse image of the arbitrary set U is open.
(2) => (1): Assume that the inverse image
(U)
of every open set U is open. Take any point
U and
pick an
>
0. Then the
-
neighborhood of f(
)
is an open set, so that it's inverse image is again open. That
inverse image contains
,
and since it is open it contains a
-
neighborhood of
for
some
> 0.
But that is exactly what we want:
or in other words
(2) <=> (3): This follows immediately from the fact that every open set in the real line can be written as the countable union of open intervals.
(2) <=> (4): This follows immediately by looking at complements, i.e. from the fact that
That equality should be proved as an exercise.
(4) <=> (5): This follows again by combining the two previous remarks.
(6), (7): This proof is very similar to the proof of (2) <=> (1). In fact, where in that previous proof have we used the fact that the domain D of the function is open ? The details are left as an exercise again.